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Should “Ekklēsia” Really Be Translated as “Church” in the Bible?
by Dr. B. Brandon Scott

Translations can obscure things instead of revealing them. Today I want to tackle the word ‘church’ that we find in Paul’s letters.
An Italian proverb says, to translate is to betray (traduttore, traditore). This is even more true when translations become traditional, fixed, and sacred. People can think that a translation is the original. A translation is never a substitute for the original.
In modern English the noun ‘church’ has a range of meanings. It primarily refers to a building for public worship, while at other times it is synonymous with Christianity, in the sense of the church universal. Finally, it can mean a denomination. Significantly, none of these meanings correspond to the Greek word ekklēsia, traditionally translated ‘church.’
In the Septuagint (LXX), the Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures, the Greek ekklēsia translates the Hebrew קְהַ֖ל (qahal), which means ‘assembly’ or ‘gathering.’ Judges 20:2 illustrates this meaning:
And the chiefs of all the people, of all the tribes of Israel, presented themselves in the assembly of the people of God, four hundred thousand men on foot that drew the sword.
New Testament usage follows the Septuagint.
The basic meaning of the Greek ekklēsia is assembly or gathering. In ordinary Greek it most often refers to the citizens of a city gathering to decide political issues and less frequently to an assembly of the devotees of a god.
‘Gathering’ works as a gloss in every usage in the New Testament and is much better than the traditional ‘church,’ because the modern meaning of church does not align with the ancient Greek. ‘Church’ is an ecclesial word, while ‘gathering’ is neutral. Ekklēsia is not a religious word.
Paul’s letter to a gathering
The earliest usages of the word among the followers of Jesus Anointed (traditionally translated ‘Jesus Christ’) are in the letters of Paul, the envoy. The address from the letter to the Corinthians is typical. “To the gathering of god which is in Corinth.” The addressees are “the gathering of god.” Since the ancient world was full of gods, we should ask, “Which god?” We unconsciously respond with “our God, the one true God.” But Paul’s usage draws directly on the Septuagint and those he is addressing are people who have shifted allegiance from one god or gods to the g-d of Israel. In the context of the Roman Empire, that shift in allegiance has political consequences.
The gathering is in a particular place. It does not exist in the abstract but in the particularity of the act of gathering in an actual place. It concretely embodies the people of g-d.
Ekklēsia /gathering may be a Pauline invention. The word is missing from the opening address of the Letter to the Romans. The community of Jesus followers in Rome may not have been familiar with the term ekklēsia, but would have been more familiar with ‘saints’ or ‘holy ones.’ The word ekklēsia occurs five times, but only in chapter 16, where Paul addresses those whom he knows. Chapter 16 may not even be part of the original letter to the Romans but added later.
How should we view these gatherings? They were small, normally five to ten people, maybe at times as many as twenty. They were occasions for eating, drinking, and discussing. They bear no resemblance to modern worship services, but more resemble church suppers. The move to formal worship did not occur until the third century.
‘Church’ in the Gospel of Matthew
Ekklēsia /gathering does not occur in the gospels except for two uses in the Gospel of Matthew. This absence from the other gospels is extraordinary. The famous example is in Matthew 16:18. First (in the King James Version):
And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church.
Now my translation:
I declare to you, “You are Rocky and upon this rock I will house-build my-gathering (of the g-d of Israel).”
The second translation sounds and means something very different than the first. Petros in Greek is not a proper name but a nickname, and there is a word play on the nickname. Another word play occurs in the word the KJV translates as ‘build.’ It means to build a house and the early communities of Jesus Anointed gathered in houses. This brief saying in Matthew is resonant with allusions missing in the traditional English translation.
How did ‘church’ become the translation for ekklēsia?
This is a twisted tale. The fifth century Cappadocian (central Turkey) Christians called their communities Kyriakos oikos (the Lord’s house). They had a major influence on the translation of the Bible into Gothic, an old east Germanic language. The Goths rendered Kyriakos oikos as ciric. In old English that became kerk, and then in English ‘church’ and in German Kirche.
There is one more anomaly in this tale. In the King James translation of the Hebrew scripture (so-called ‘Old Testament’), the translators consistently employed the gloss ‘assembly,’ while in the New Testament they used ‘church.’ Thus, they obscured the connection to its Jewish roots. Anti-Semitism hides in the strangest places.
Seeing ‘church’ as a small gathering, most often in a home, around eating, drinking, and discussion suggests a shift away from institution to small groups based on personal relations.
To be faithful to the New Testament, we should consider moving in this direction.



We need to be listen to Holy Spirit. Not simply trying to work things out by our understanding. To think ekklesia means gathering you really miss so much.
You just said church is an “ecclesial” word…..and Ekklesia isnt a “religious” word. No wonder the apostle Paul cautioned about quarreling about words which does no good, but only ruins the hearers. Some like to have their cake and eat it too…
Ekklesia actually means the “out called” where ek in Greek is out (like exit which is related to ek). The translation assembly is not exact, but called out to Christ does fit, as in the aftermath being assembled to Christ. The English word church like German kirche, vows from the Greek Kirios – meaning the Lord’s or the Lord depending on use. The verse “the earth is the Lords and the fullness thereof” is telling of what “church” refers to being Kirios. And is through all the earth, not hidden in temples made with hands.
I just want to understand why we do not do what Jesus said in this verse: “Very truly, I tell you, the one who believes in me will also do the works that I do and, in fact, will do greater works than these, because I am going to the Father” (John 14:12).
Lastly, how can I get hold of the Ethopian Bible and how can I get the original meaning of words of the Bible? Certain translations took away the power of God which is in the scriptures taught by Jesus.
I also would like to know where I can purchase a Bible that has the Ekklesia in its original place in the Bible. Please let me know if you find one please. Thank you
It is not difficult to obtain the New Testament in its original Geek text, I have had several over my entire life. 77 years old now. I also have the Septuagint. Which is the original Greek translation of the Old Testament, including the Apocrypha. We are living in great times today, as anyone can scan or upload pages from the final text to ChatGPT or other AI, many are great for translating other languages to English with amazing accuracy. I know Greek, so I can attest to the almost perfect accuracy in the translations. Research for yourself. Learn what the real meaning of many words and phrases spoken by Jesus and the Apostles are, and in context with the times that Jesus walked the earth. Many prophets of the Old Testament were also mistranslated into English, but you can see the changes the old translators made when adding their own “biases” when translating from original Greek. You would be amazed at how much some of these prophecies were altered, resulting from mistranslation. AI is an amazing tool. When used for the right purposes.
I recently purchased a copy of the Literal Standard Version. It translated ecclesia as assembly. I hope that helps. (Or ekklesia)
I believe that all the research that was done by all the people should be documented. I am not saying what you documented is not true; however, I would just like to see the sources for myself on where this information was obtained. I am concerned about how the words “Jew” and “Gentiles” are used. Those are also two words that were later added apart from the older manuscripts. I also think that older manuscripts is a better term used than the original manuscripts or texts because they are non-existent. I just want to know your insights concerning those things.
The truth is very sweet and hidden in the context of God’s eternal purpose (EPH 1:9-11) Our beloved brother John spoke of ‘ecclesia’s- in the ‘province of Asia’ and then individually wrote letters to an ecclesia in each ‘city’. In the final consummation the New Jerusalem is the consummate assembly of all of God’s people. Jerusalem is a city. As long as we understand that the ‘church’ is the called-out, regenerated in spirit, believers of Christ assembling together i see nothing wrong with it. After all is not the word Christians a corrupted word given to believers not by Christ but by those who persecuted them yet we are proud to be deemed such? Bless all who seek the life, love and light of this wonderful savior and king!
No, it shouldn’t for these reasons:
1. It is the word that the Holy Spirit prompted Jesus to use and declare at Caesarea Philippi (Matt_16:18), when standing before the Tetrarch’s palace & the occult, porn idol’s Gate of Hades; declaring what He is building and will! We are not to grieve the Holy Spirit; who knew exactly what He was doing.
2. The civic word still in common parlance, Ekklesia, from Ancient Greece & Rome is full of relevant meaning, when essentially interpreted through the New Testament & New Covenant (Jer_31:31-34) e.g. communal, male & female, equality & non-hierarchical, spiritual warfare & peacemaking, and governance.
3. ‘Got Questions’ tells us: “… Going further back than Old English, the word church ultimately traces its origin to a Greek term, kūrikón, which was related to kurios, “lord.” The phrase kūrikón oikía meant “the Lord’s house.” In the Middle Ages, the Greek term for “house of worship” was shortened to kūrkón. And that’s the word that was loaned to West Germanic as kirika and eventually to Old English as cirice. Old Norse borrowed the Old English word cirice to form kirkja, and that’s where the Scottish word kirk came from. During the Middle English period, the word kirk was borrowed from the Scots, so now Modern English has both church and kirk as synonyms…” But, the Bible tells us very clearly in: 1Ki_8:27; 2Chr_2:6, 2Chr_6:18; Isa_66:1; Acts_7:48; 17:24 that God neither dwells in a house (building) or can be contained in one; since as Acts_17:28 further states he is Omnipresent! Are we truly Biblical or not?
4. Seeing as Emperor Constantine & King James 1 demanded the translators use the incorrect word, church, and Acts_5:29 tell us to obey God rather than man: Who are you going to obey as a disciple & follower of Jesus?
5. And furthermore, 1 Cor_ 14:26ff commands Jesus’s ekklesia (through His Apostle) how we are to gather (N.B. not ‘go to church’) i.e. without getting hung-up on the local problem in vs.34-36! Also, to be truly participatory it must be small in number; & grow by multiplication, through every disciple being a discipler. (The only way to complete Jesus’s Great Commission — ‘God’s Way’ as Hudson Taylor said!).
I agree, Brian. What Jesus said is what He meant to say. Who would doubt that Jesus knew the meaning of ekklesia, and if He meant to say a word meaning “church”, why would He not use it? Jesus, being true God, did not err in word choices. Who are we to decide that He really meant something other than what He said, according to Matthew? Or did Matthew get it wrong? If Matthew got it wrong, then we have another problem… is the New Testament divinely inspired? Did not the Holy Spirit come to the disciples and bless them with the knowledge to correctly write what they witnessed and learned, for three and a half years following Jesus?
Good word, Brian. To me, the term “church” has done untold harm to our gospel cause. That said, God’s will is not to be deterred. The mistranslated term has become sacred to the masses that it’s not up for debate. Thank you for your input.
THE WILL BIBLE New Covenant is my Plain Translation of the GREEK NEW TESTAMENT Fourth Revised Edition the copyright owner of which is the German Bible Society. Please see my posts on Facebook
According to the Encyclopedia Britannica and several other sources, the word “ekklesia” in Greek means assembly in English. Why do you call it gathering, instead of assembly? “On this rock, I will build my assembly.” The assembly at Ephesus, etc.
Another related question is, why do modern English translations insist on using religious-sounding words like “gospel”, “doctrine”, “disciple” and similar, when the Greek meaning is secular; “good news”, “teaching” and “student/follower”? Jesus is deliberately secular, eating, drinking and associating with sinners and the common people, rather than the religious leaders of his time. The New Testament is likewise secular, using regular secular words like “good news”, “teaching” and “follower”. Good news is something anyone can relate to as is sound teaching. On the other hand, many people unfamiliar with the Christian religion can’t relate to gospel or doctrine, which is language not used in modern English.
The real question is, why isn’t there any modern English translation that is faithful to the Greek?
On a similar note, according to my understanding, the Greek word “kosmos” has three meanings; world, humanity and world system. Again, modern English translations insist on confusing the average reader by calling everything “world” instead of using the correct implied meaning.
Corrected Examples;
“For God so loved the people, that he gave the only begotten son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.”
“For God did not send his son into the world so that he might judge the people, but that the people through him, might be saved.”
“Love not the world system, neither the things that are in the world system.”
This makes a lot more sense than calling everything “world”. Someone might fairly ask, why did God love the world if we aren’t supposed to love the world?
Bravo, you are correct! Much has been lost in translations, and entire belief systems are in some cases skewed because of mistranslations. Jesus established his ekklesia, which encompasses civic matters also. Mankind was never meant to be forever ruled by the ungodly. The faithful, true believers are to also lead the people’s government, it just “churches”, leaving our children at the mercy of followers of Satan. The separation of spiritual concerns and state concerns has led us to this turmoil we are living in today.
The RIV (Renner Interpretative Version)is an expanded translation from the Greek.the Greek language is more expanded than English. like in Greek there are 3 ways to say the word repent,each one being similar yet meaning something somewhat different,but in English there is only one word repent but it’s context may have to be explained in some way.if all of this makes sense.its kind of hard to explain what I am trying to say.Rick Renner is a Christian Greek scholar.i love watching him!
This is a false reading of a bad translation of the word.
The Latin ecclesia, from Greek ekklesia, is a word compound of two segments: “ek”, a preposition meaning “out of”, and a verb, “kaleo”, signifying “to call” – together, literally, “to call out”.
More simply ‘The called Out Ones’
That usage unfortunately disappeared and was replaced with “assembly, congregation, council”, or “convocation”.
This later distortion allows your proposition of small, closed away groups to be justified. This is not what Jesus was calling us to.
This is such a good, simple explanation of this serious issue, so much so that I linked to it on the Reorient page of my new website. rip[.]church. I group up in “Church.” Eventually, I left a lucrative career and a beautiful mountain home and ended up becoming a pastor of a small dying Church in a small rural midwestern town. It took less than a year for all of my worst suspicions about Church to be confirmed, and I’ve documented my position, story, and direction on this website. I do believe that Jesus is divine, and I believe much more can be attributed to him than the Jesus Seminar concludes, however, I am 100% agreement the institutionalization of religion, and specifically Christianity, has obscured the reality of Jesus. Church is the institution that claims to represent God but actually misrepresents him, in the same way we see in the narrative of the Jewish religious institution in the story of Jesus. Jesus is the only and full representation of God that we need. I increasingly suspect that possibly all institutionalization ultimately corrupts, first from the temptation to seize power, then when it’s obvious things have gone wrong, from pride and stubbornness of those involved not wanting to admit it’s all wrong. See education, government, big-business, big-tech, financial systems, and healthcare, in addition to religion.
We do harm to understanding Scripter without studying the history of things, how things came to be and why do people believe what they believe. The word “church” didn’t appear on the scene until the 13th century. It is an English word that is not connected in any way to the biblical Hebrew, Greek or Aramaic. The Jews had no concept of “church.” They, for thousands of year’s before the arrival of Jesus, and after, used the word congregation to refer to a gathering of believers or the body of believers as a whole. Whenever Jesus entered a structure to teach, he either taught in the Temple or a synagogue. Paul never spoke of going to the local “church” he always went to the local synagogue.
Jesus, Paul or any other New Testament writer ever used the English word “church.” I am speaking of the original texts, not any translation. Wycliff nor Tyndale used the word “church” in their English translation, using the proper word congregation to represent believers. As I started earlier, there is no Hebrew or Greek word that can be translated into the word “church.” If you transliterate the English word “church” into Greek, this is the result,” xiupxi.” This word does not exist in the Greek language, in fact, it is not even a word.
Why does the KJV use the word “church?” Because the translators were forced to use the word. What most people don’t know is that allowed the work, that came to be known as the KJV, for different reasons, none of which had anything to do with ensuring a better, proper or more accurate translation of Scripture. His four main reasons for allowing and approving of this work were:
To perpetuate the concept of the “Divine right of Kings.”
To make the work the “official Bible” of the Anglican Church. James was an Anglican. In the Anglican Church, the king was also the head of the Church.
To continue the hierarchy of the Anglican Church, which ensured that the Anglican Church had the authority over all teaching and doctrines of Scripture, which meant that all of the laity had to listen to, believe and obey the Anglican Church. Many don’t realize that the Anglican Church is no more than a sister Church to the Roman Catholic Church, with some minor differences.
To eradicate the Geneva Bible, The Geneva Bible was by far the most popular Bible among many of the clergy and the majority of the population, which could afford one and the cost of the Geneva Bible made it accessible to many people.The Geneva Bible staunchly opposed the “Divine Right of Kings” and showed that all people were equal in the sight of God, be it a king or peasant. The Geneva Bible had footnotes, explaining things, with the idea that any person could read and understand difficult things taught in Scripture for themselves, rather than being held hostage to whatever the clergy taught. It took the authority of what Scripture taught out of the control of the “Church.”
There were 15 rules the KJV translators had to abide by to have the work approved and allowed.
Rule 1 ensured that the KJV would only be a revision of other works, not a new translation.James wanted the Bishops Bible to be the main source of the revision.
Rule 6 ensured that there would be no marginal footnotes explaining Scripture, only in the case of explaining certain Hebrew or Greek words.
As far as the word “church” being used in this revision, Rule number 3 explains why the KJV uses the word.
Rule 3 The Old Ecclesiastical Words to be kept, viz, the Word Church not to be translated Congregation!
This is why the word “church” is used in the KJV! Not because it is the best word! Not because it is an accurate word! Not because it is a legitimate biblical word! King James specifically insisted that the word “church” be used! Most, if not all of the men who worked on producing the KJV knew that the word “church” had no place in any translation of Scripture, but their hands were tied! They had no choice!
The first thing James did after the KJV began to be published was to outlaw the printing of the Geneva Bible within the realm. Later on, he forbade the Geneva Bible from being imported!
Eventually, no publisher in any European country would print the Geneva Bible, because it was no longer popular. The original settlers up until the Pilgrims all used the Geneva Bible. But by the middle of the 1600s the numbers of settlers had dramatically increased and they all brought the KJV. The colonies were not allowed by the crown to publish bibles and had to import them. It wasn’t until Sept 12, 1782, after America became a nation, that Congress authorized the printing of bibles. This explains why the KJV gained such a foothold in this country. Time has also shown us that the KJV is not the best English translation available today.
Thank you Bob!
What you presented certainly has inspired me. I then immediately searched the (online) Geneva Bible for Matthew 16:18[*] I was disappointed to see the word: “church” in this verse. Nevertheless I am still open to considering further research in “Geneva” however IMO the “church” issue is critical.
I warmly invite the possibility of your additional comments on this. [*] https://www.originalbibles.com/the-geneva-bible-1560/
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First of all, those behind the Geneva Bible all came out of the Catholic Church system and the word “church” was so ingrained in their minds that the use of the word was accepted and normal. What most don’t realize was that the big names of the Reformation: Tyndall, Luther, Calvin, Zwingli, Knox, and Brucer, were all originally priests in the Catholic church. At the beginning, all of these men wanted to reform the Catholic church and get rid of the abusive and oppressive practices and false teaching used by the Catholic church. They never wanted to start a “Protestant” “church,” or to break away from the Catholic church. They were originally “protesting” against the Catholic church. But, after Tyndall was executed and they saw how the Catholic church wanted to kill Luther, they figured out they had no alternative as the Catholic church was not going to change.
The second biggest concern of the reformers was that the common people of the different countries should have a translation in their native tongue so that anyone who was literate could read the Bible for themselves, and others could be taught in their own language and understand what was being spoken. The Catholic church at that time still only used and taught from Jerome’s Latin Vulgate, insisting on the services be spoke in Latin, which was already a dead language and which none of the common people in any country knew how to speak or write. The Catholic church wanted total control over what the people were taught, which included Penance, Sacraments, Liturgy, confessing to a priest, saying the rosary, and that what the Pope taught was infallible.
Luther did a German translation which led to the Geneva Bible being produced for English speakers.
What needs to be understood is that all of Scripture, Old and New Testament, has a Jewish context. In fact, there is no Old and New Testament. It should read the original covenant and the renewed covenant. Jehovah set up everything through His chosen people, the Jews.
Deut 4:32-40
Ps 147:19-20
Neh 9:13-14
Rom 3:1-2, 9:3-4
Yeshua was 100% Jewish. He lived in a Jewish culture as a Jewish man with a Jewish mindset concerning the things of Jehovah. He learned the Torah. In no way shape or form did he ever think like a Gentile, in any manner or concerning the Torah.
When he said, “Do not think that I have come to destroy the law and the prophets. I have come not to destroy, but to fulfill, people think that he was saying was that he had come to “fulfill prophecy” (Mat 5:17), this is incorrect. He was using a Jewish idiom that meant he had come to correctly teach Scripture. If a rabbi was thought to be teaching something wrong, he would be said to be “destroying the law and the prophets.” If people thought he was teaching correctly, he would have been said to be “fulfilling the law.”
Yeshua didn’t bring any “new” teaching or doctrine. Every thing he taught came straight out of the Old Testament. Even salvation. When Yeshua is having a conversation with Nicodemus in John 3, Yeshua teaches about how the spirit works in salvation.
Verse 7: Do not be astonished that I say to you that it is necessary to be born from above. (Sorry, but this is how the original text reads. It does not mean ‘born again.”)
Verse 8: The wind blows where it wishes and you can hear the wind, but you don’t know from where it came or where it is going, thus it is with everyone who has been born of the spirit.
Verse 9: Nicodemus said,” How can these things happen?
Verse 10: Yeshua said to him,” You are a teacher of Israel and you do not know these things?
Now, since Nicodemus was a teacher, what would have been the source of his teaching? Obviously the Old Testament! Which means how salvation worked was already laid out in the Old Testament! Yeshua did not introduce a “new way” to “get saved,” or a different way for Gentiles to “get saved!”
Here is the gist of the renewed covenant, Deut 30:6, Jer 31:33, 32:39, Eze 11:19-20, 36:26-27, Heb 8:10. These verses also apply to the Gentile sheep, in that the Gentile believers are spiritual Jews, Rom 2:13-16, 9:24-26. Rom chp 11 speaks of how the Gentile sheep are grafted into the kingdom.
Nowhere in the Old Testament or Jewish theology is there any concept of “a church.” It doesn’t exist. So Yeshua never used any Hebrew word that can be translated as “church!” In Mat 16:18 the Greek word incorrectly translated as “build” is Oikodomeo, which also means “to build up,” or “restore.” What Yeshua said was, “I am going to restore the congregation.” Or “rebuild the congregation.”
After Paul and all of the Apostles were dead, a movement began among some of the more influential Gentile leaders. While they did attract a number of Gentiles into their folds, the majority of Gentile believers were going to synagogues to be taught Scripture and the true faith. Remember, what we call the New Testament didn’t have its final form or start to be considered ‘canon’ until the 3rd or 4th century. Of course, the Gentile leaders were not happy with this. These Gentile leaders were already introducing a little false teaching and with Paul and the Apostles “out of the way,” there was no one to contradict them.
So a smear campaign was begun against the Jews and the Old Testament. While it took centuries to develop, Anti-Semetism finally reached its apex in the Holocaust. This was started by jealous Gentile leaders and included many well known people, including Justin Martyr, John Chrysostom, Tertullian, Origen, Ignatius and Martin Luther. Yes, that Martin Luther. In fact he wrote a 65,000 word book called, The Jews and their Lies. This was one of Hitler’s and the Nazi Party’s favorite books.
Because of Anti-Semetism, the Gentiles started turning the New Testament from a strictly Jewish book into a forged narrative that would appeal to Gentile pagans. A New Testament that had nothing to do with it’s Jewish roots. The ground work was laid for the word “church” in the Septuagint. Since there was no Greek word for “congregation” and the meaning of congregation, they chose a Greek word which was kinda close in only one aspect, ‘ekklesia.’ Which was not a Scripture word and the only resemblance to congregation was that it included a group of people coming together. But, in the Greek sense, it only meant a gathering to discuss political or social issues. It never meant or referred to a religious gathering.
While there is a lot more history I could relate, the fact is that every major English translation of Scripture up until the KJV, except for the Geneva, always translated ecclesia as “congregation.” The main reason James wanted the word “church” used was to enforce the hierarchy of the organized church in place. In other words, to entrench the “authority” of the church. Because while James was not only King, he was also the head of the Anglican church, the Church of England. James believed in the “Divine Right of Kings” which taught that not only were the kings and queens of Europe in their positions because God had chosen them, but that no ruler was subject to any law of the land. Additionally, the word “church” adds to the separation between Jewish people and Gentiles, and it was widely accepted as a legitimate “biblical” word.
I sincerely appreciate and believe your historical accounting regarding the KJV and pray a more accurate and honest translation would come forth than any we have to present day.
I believe Matthew 28:19 needs to be revisited as a more likely trinitarian forgery than even the Johannine Comma and that God would be glorified if we could get to the bottom of it.
Thank you for this “new” old way of considering the entity now called church. Fellowship and discussions would add so much with the sharing of ideas. Group learning. More for me to consider further. Thanks
Helen Mathis’s remeninence is on target. I too was part of such a group and it was very meaningful. I wrote about it in the conclusion of my book “Reimaging the World: An Introduction the Parable.”
For Helen Mathis. I think “church” as translation makes more sense beginning in the third century, because there it means more and more the building where the community meets with the bishop. The shift from house to building (baselica in Greek, cathedra in Latin) was almost surely necessitated by the growing numbers. But what was loss was the small group.
I’m always hestitant to say what I think these discoveries mean for the present situation. Our time and situation is so different from the first or second centuries, or the fourth and fifth centuries, that is hard to say how they apply. Answering that question takes a lot of hard work. We are too often tempted by the simple analogy. Mary Beard, the eminent Classicist, at the end of her book SPQR asks what can we learn from the ancient Romans, the topic of her book. Her answer is that we can learn nothing DIRECTLY–they have nothing to teach us directly. But by learning about the ancients we can learn about ourselves. And that is very valuable. It gives us a different way to ask questions. I think what Beard has to say about the ancient Romans is also true about the bible and the early followers of Jesus, or the ancient creeds, for that matter.
James Edwards has a good point, one I have often ruminated over. “Jesus” is a transliteraton (not translation) of the Greek, which in turn is a transliteration of the Aramaic. A literal translation of “jesous christos” would be “Joshua the oily one.” BTW, my next blog is on “Christ” and it is already in the que for next month.
Brandon’s summary statement: “Seeing ‘church’ as a small gathering, most often in a home, around eating, drinking, and discussion suggests a shift away from institution to small groups based on personal relations”
reminded me of when teaching at a college, a group of faculty and staff created what we called our “alterna-church.” We met every Sunday in one of our homes, gathering first for breakfast followed by readings from the bible and other sacred texts, sharing and praying together as we went. It was the most moving and intimate kind of Christ-community I’ve ever been in; and for the first time, my husband was’ at home’ with this expression of “church”. There were moments of both joy and tears, and a deep caring for one another.
I have always thought the word “church” is an unhelpful one in the context of the earliest gatherings, and for years encouraged the use of “assembly.” The word church is just too loaded with emotions and expectations and presumptions. They are all enemies of dispassionate inquiry and encourage people who are just starting to look at how church came to be how it is, to read back into those earliest days a structure that took decades and centuries to create. At times it feels like we need to start again with a whole new vocabulary in order to convince people that what they think has always been, had its own beginning and likely it was a very different concept! (But how exciting if we could help people to reimagine..(and how interesting that even in the choice of church over assembly, we see that insistence on wiping out the Jewishness of Jesus and those who first followed his teachings: definitely reason enough to go back to “assembly!”) Thank you for this.
If we are translating christ as anointed should’t we go the whole way. Jesus is itself a translation of Josh the shorter form of Joshua and messiah also means the anointed one. So Jesus Christ the Messiah becomes Josh the anointed, anointed one.
I have long thought that in anointing neophytes rather than insisting on circumcision we see the origins of Christianity – “we call ourselves the anointed …” etc – in the aftermath of the Jewish war and destruction of the temple. It certainly makes more sense of the silence, the absence of evidence between Paul and the second century.